news.rcn.com
7/19/2008 5:39:00 PM
"Jack Linthicum" <jacklinthicum@earthlink.net> wrote in message
news:90774940-5af1-4258-807c-c791d72b972d@a70g2000hsh.googlegroups.com...
> On Jul 16, 1:13 pm, Rich Rostrom <rrostrom.21stcent...@rcn.com> wrote:
>> In article <6e5iavF5e4e...@mid.individual.net>,
>> "Mike stone" <mwst...@aol.com> wrote:
>> >Did Texas actually get a _choice_ about how much it gave up?
>>
>> Not really. OTOH, the U.S. was not going
>> to slice and dice Texas at will either:
>> Texas had many friends in Congress.
Texas was fixin to march its militia to Santa Fe to establish its claim -
they had raided their state schools fund to bankroll it - and Zack Taylor
likely would have ordered the US Army to stop them. But then he died. A
military confrontation in New Mexico between the US and Texas has
interesting implications.
>>
>> >Incidentally, any thoughts on how all this impinges on the Compromise of
>> >1850? With all this additional territory, much of it more suitable for
>> >slavery than OTL New Mexico, will the North be so willing to go along
>> >with
>> >Popular Sovereignty?
>>
>> With this extra territory already open to slavery,
>> will the South push for pop sov in Kansas?
the guys on the ground in Missouri would have demanded that KS be a slave
state. they were worried about the implications for slavery in Missouri if
it was surrounded on three sides by free territory. They can probably drag
the rest of the slave states along with them.
>>
>> >Also, what are the rules likely to be about the franchise in territorial
>> >elections? If the vote is limited to "whites", who exactly counts as
>> >white
>> >in Chihuahua or Sinaloa? Or will the existing franchise (whatever that
>> >was
>> >under Mexican law) continue to operate until changed by Congress - which
>> >might take quite a while if Congress is badly deadlocked?
>>
>> AFAIK, there was no explicit rule disfranchising
>> Mexicans in TX or CA, and certainly not in NM.
>> I don't see how such a law could be enacted and
>> imposed in a populous Mexican region S of the Rio
>> Grande.
>>
>> One detail. Mexico, unlike the U.S., has a large
>> population of assimilated Indians. That is, there
>> are a lot of people who are Catholic, farmers,
>> Spanish-speaking - have completely given up Indian
>> ways, are no longer distinguished by 'tribe' - but
>> are still recognizably Indian. There were a few such
>> in the U.S., who were disfranchised till insignficant.
>> That won't work here.
before the Mexican War, there are basically three large-scale models for the
US dealings' with non-white peoples (1) enslaved blacks; (2) free blacks;
and (3) Indians. One is absolute subjugation, two is political
disenfranchisement (in the vast majority of States), and three is ethnic
cleansing, even in areas like the Southeast where many of the Indians were
"settled" in a way that the white majority would recognize. my gut tells me
that none of them are going to be applicable to populous territories in
Mexico. It is going to depend upon which gringos settle in the new
territories and how fast as well as the circumstances under which the
territorial governments are formed (the US military ruled New Mexico for
quite some time). worst-case scenario is "Criollos" (sp?) ally with gringo
immigrants and are recognized as "white" and allowed political rights, while
Mestizos live in circumstances similar to free blacks in the North.
the problem is, we don't have an antebellum model in which significant
numbers of white Americans are living among a (non-slave) populace that they
consider non-white, do we? Unless we have a nice multi-culti result, with
Mexicans and gringos living side by side in more or less harmony (which is
one possibility, to be sure), we would be looking at some sort of enforced
white supremacy, the particulars are left to the imagination.
cheers,
Doug
..